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- #1

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- #2

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http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Faraday's_law_of_induction

If you're trying to find a numerical solution to a particular problem then the wiki article will show the right equations; if you're asking someone here to {do your homework for you} give help on how to apply the equations then you need to give all the info in the problem set for you.

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I have no clue how to do it. Do I need a simulation software?it? Is there similar equation to force of gravity one? Like the further away you are, the lesser force of between two masses which is inversely proportional to square distant?

I know flux density isnt constant everywhere!

- #5

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Yes, the equation is of exactly the same form as the gravity equation.

- #6

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how can
tell me flux density over a specific area from r distance from the source of magnetic flux?

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I've never seen an equation for the [tex]\vec{B}(\vec{r})[/tex] of a permanent magnet in physics problems. All I've seen is equations for the [tex]\vec{B}(\vec{r})[/tex] of electromagnets, which can be found using the Biot-Savart law. But I GUESS you can find one for a permanent magnet if you assume it to be a lattice, find the magnetic dipole moment [tex]\vec{\mu}[/tex] of the typical lattice point (atom or molecule), find the [tex]\vec{B}(\vec{r})[/tex] for a generic [tex]\vec{r}[/tex] (this would be the magnetic field due to a single atom/molecule), and spatially integrate over the structure of the lattice to account for all the lattice points.

Maybe these links will help if you want to do that.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Magnetic_dipole_moment#Magnetic_moment_of_an_atom

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Perman...r_magnets:_magnetic_poles_and_atomic_currents

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Magnetic_field#Magnetic_field_of_permanent_magnets

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dipole#Field_of_a_static_magnetic_dipole

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Magnetic_pole_strength#Magnetic_Coulomb.27s_law

But since you said it's a project, maybe you have the physical material handy. I'd take an experimental approach in that case, and measure the induced voltage of the coil of wire and the position of the magnet at the same time. Then from Faraday's law of induction, the induced voltage is proportional to [tex]\frac{d \phi}{d t}[/tex] where [tex]\phi[/tex] is the flux.

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Thanks for link. I never knew the magnets were anything like 'dipole'. After going throught the pages, I think found the equation I was looking for.

[PLAIN]http://img863.imageshack.us/img863/7309/coil.png [Broken]

Just to clear myself to you what I'm trying to do. I have a coil of wire in a rod shape around a magnet, not a simple coil around a magnet. The circular rod is filled with N number of wires. The diameter of the coil is known and the distance between the coil and center magnet also known. I just want to find the amount of flux entering the surface area of the wire.

Anyway, returning to the equation, I don't get it. :'(

[PLAIN]http://img135.imageshack.us/img135/3573/piclq.png [Broken]

The type of magnet is known, but how do I find its dipole movement? What the difference between 'lamba' and 'r'? Aren't the the same thing distance from the center axis of the magnet?

If 'p' is the distance from the z-axis... wut is 'r' then??????

[PLAIN]http://img863.imageshack.us/img863/7309/coil.png [Broken]

Just to clear myself to you what I'm trying to do. I have a coil of wire in a rod shape around a magnet, not a simple coil around a magnet. The circular rod is filled with N number of wires. The diameter of the coil is known and the distance between the coil and center magnet also known. I just want to find the amount of flux entering the surface area of the wire.

Anyway, returning to the equation, I don't get it. :'(

[PLAIN]http://img135.imageshack.us/img135/3573/piclq.png [Broken]

The type of magnet is known, but how do I find its dipole movement? What the difference between 'lamba' and 'r'? Aren't the the same thing distance from the center axis of the magnet?

If 'p' is the distance from the z-axis... wut is 'r' then??????

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- #9

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I had computer trouble, hence the late reply.

It looks like the [tex]r[/tex] comes from the http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Spherical_coordinate_system" [Broken]. [tex]\lambda = 90^{\circ} - \theta[/tex] is an angle which can be calculated using the spherical coordinate [tex]\theta[/tex]

[tex]\rho[/tex] is the distance from the [tex]z[/tex] axis, and [tex]r[/tex] is the distance from the origin. From the Pythagoras's law, [tex]r^{2} = \rho^{2} + z^{2}[/tex].

I don't know if a whole magnet could be accurately approximated by a single dipole moment. But it might be possible. What I meant in the last post was to take in to account all the molecules in the magnet, and assign each of them a magnetic dipole moment, and then calculate the total magnetic field from all of those molecules. But reading about this further, it seems more complicated than I thought. I don't know how to find the individual magnetic dipole moments of molecules (my quantum mechanics is not that good at the moment). The temperature has to be taken in to account too. The https://www.physicsforums.com/forumdisplay.php?f=64" might be a good place to ask how to model a permanent magnet. Solid state physicists do that stuff for a living.

Like I said before, you could also take an experimental approach. If you can measure the voltage between the two ends of the coil at any given time [tex]t[/tex], then that is equal to the electromotive force [tex]\varepsilon[/tex] in the http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Farada...Flux_through_a_surface_and_EMF_around_a_loop", [tex]\lvert \varepsilon \rvert = N \lvert \frac{ d \phi_{B} }{ d t } \rvert [/tex], where [tex]N[/tex] is the number of coils. So you can measure the*rate of change* of flux.

You can integrate this(you could do it numerically) to find the flux [tex]\phi_{B}[/tex]. But there will always be an unknown constant. One suggestion I have to overcome this is start with the magnet very far away from the coil so the initial flux is zero ([tex]\phi_{B 0} = 0[/tex]) so that constant is zero, and measure [tex]\varepsilon[/tex] with [tex]t[/tex]. If you also record the position of the magnet with time, then you can find out how the position of the magnet is related to the total flux through the coil.

By the way, I found this cool http://www.nasa.gov/multimedia/videogallery/index.html?media_id=34952541".

May I ask why you need to find the flux through the coil?

It looks like the [tex]r[/tex] comes from the http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Spherical_coordinate_system" [Broken]. [tex]\lambda = 90^{\circ} - \theta[/tex] is an angle which can be calculated using the spherical coordinate [tex]\theta[/tex]

[tex]\rho[/tex] is the distance from the [tex]z[/tex] axis, and [tex]r[/tex] is the distance from the origin. From the Pythagoras's law, [tex]r^{2} = \rho^{2} + z^{2}[/tex].

I don't know if a whole magnet could be accurately approximated by a single dipole moment. But it might be possible. What I meant in the last post was to take in to account all the molecules in the magnet, and assign each of them a magnetic dipole moment, and then calculate the total magnetic field from all of those molecules. But reading about this further, it seems more complicated than I thought. I don't know how to find the individual magnetic dipole moments of molecules (my quantum mechanics is not that good at the moment). The temperature has to be taken in to account too. The https://www.physicsforums.com/forumdisplay.php?f=64" might be a good place to ask how to model a permanent magnet. Solid state physicists do that stuff for a living.

Like I said before, you could also take an experimental approach. If you can measure the voltage between the two ends of the coil at any given time [tex]t[/tex], then that is equal to the electromotive force [tex]\varepsilon[/tex] in the http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Farada...Flux_through_a_surface_and_EMF_around_a_loop", [tex]\lvert \varepsilon \rvert = N \lvert \frac{ d \phi_{B} }{ d t } \rvert [/tex], where [tex]N[/tex] is the number of coils. So you can measure the

You can integrate this(you could do it numerically) to find the flux [tex]\phi_{B}[/tex]. But there will always be an unknown constant. One suggestion I have to overcome this is start with the magnet very far away from the coil so the initial flux is zero ([tex]\phi_{B 0} = 0[/tex]) so that constant is zero, and measure [tex]\varepsilon[/tex] with [tex]t[/tex]. If you also record the position of the magnet with time, then you can find out how the position of the magnet is related to the total flux through the coil.

By the way, I found this cool http://www.nasa.gov/multimedia/videogallery/index.html?media_id=34952541".

May I ask why you need to find the flux through the coil?

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I had computer trouble, hence the late reply.

It looks like the [tex]r[/tex] comes from the http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Spherical_coordinate_system" [Broken]. [tex]\lambda = 90^{\circ} - \theta[/tex] is an angle which can be calculated using the spherical coordinate [tex]\theta[/tex]

[tex]\rho[/tex] is the distance from the [tex]z[/tex] axis, and [tex]r[/tex] is the distance from the origin. From the Pythagoras's law, [tex]r^{2} = \rho^{2} + z^{2}[/tex].

I don't know if a whole magnet could be accurately approximated by a single dipole moment. But it might be possible. What I meant in the last post was to take in to account all the molecules in the magnet, and assign each of them a magnetic dipole moment, and then calculate the total magnetic field from all of those molecules. But reading about this further, it seems more complicated than I thought. I don't know how to find the individual magnetic dipole moments of molecules (my quantum mechanics is not that good at the moment). The temperature has to be taken in to account too. The https://www.physicsforums.com/forumdisplay.php?f=64" might be a good place to ask how to model a permanent magnet. Solid state physicists do that stuff for a living.

Like I said before, you could also take an experimental approach. If you can measure the voltage between the two ends of the coil at any given time [tex]t[/tex], then that is equal to the electromotive force [tex]\varepsilon[/tex] in the http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Farada...Flux_through_a_surface_and_EMF_around_a_loop", [tex]\lvert \varepsilon \rvert = N \lvert \frac{ d \phi_{B} }{ d t } \rvert [/tex], where [tex]N[/tex] is the number of coils. So you can measure therate of changeof flux.

You can integrate this(you could do it numerically) to find the flux [tex]\phi_{B}[/tex]. But there will always be an unknown constant. One suggestion I have to overcome this is start with the magnet very far away from the coil so the initial flux is zero ([tex]\phi_{B 0} = 0[/tex]) so that constant is zero, and measure [tex]\varepsilon[/tex] with [tex]t[/tex]. If you also record the position of the magnet with time, then you can find out how the position of the magnet is related to the total flux through the coil.

By the way, I found this cool http://www.nasa.gov/multimedia/videogallery/index.html?media_id=34952541".

wow.. never knew it was such a complicated problem. I thought it was simple plug and chug, get the simple temperature relation like in solid mechanics when including temperature in strain equation.

May I ask why you need to find the flux through the coil?

Its really late here, going to re-read your post and the equatino. I'm going to assume loads of values but I need to use the temperature too. Going to assume its dipole and everything. I just want to find flux density on a flat small simple xy plane section!,

its just for a simple project. i really don't want to make a practical of it..

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It looks to me as if finding the [tex]\vec{B}(\vec{r})[/tex] for a permanent magnet theoretically would be extremely difficult because it depends on the atomic properties of the magnet. That means quantum mechanics, oscillation of the atoms due to temperature, interactions of atoms with each other, all come in to play. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ising_model" [Broken] was an attempt do this, but it is EXTREMELY more simplified than real life. To my knowledge, there is still no analytical solution for the 3D case. You can write whole scientific papers about it and still have no solution.

Finding the [tex]\vec{B}(\vec{r})[/tex] for simple electromagnets (coils, solenoids etc.) theoretically are comparatively simple because it only depends on the magnitude and spatial distribution of the current going through the electromagnet.

So I think unless you can replace your permanent magnet with an electromagnet, you have to do a practical experiment to find out the flux through the coil.

Finding the [tex]\vec{B}(\vec{r})[/tex] for simple electromagnets (coils, solenoids etc.) theoretically are comparatively simple because it only depends on the magnitude and spatial distribution of the current going through the electromagnet.

So I think unless you can replace your permanent magnet with an electromagnet, you have to do a practical experiment to find out the flux through the coil.

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My main goal is to find the amount of current induced in the coil of wire with a velocity equation name. The whole thing is simple faraday's law induction experiment but instead of the coil surround the magnet, the coil is more wrapped in a circular rod fashion as shown in the figure with it moving vertically straight up at, lets say 10m/s.

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The [tex]\vec{B}[/tex] for an electromagnet depends on the **current**. For example, look at the equation for a http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Solenoid#Quantitative_description". It changes with the current [tex]i[/tex]. There is no analogous parameter for a permanent magnet.

What magnetic properties about your magnet do you know?

What magnetic properties about your magnet do you know?

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I think i found what I was looking for take a look at it. http://www.magneticsolutions.com.au/magnet-formula.html#sr

it doesn't involve any dipole things you mentioned.

>>I THINK THAT WAS IT<< but I'm trying to understand how the equation work. Like I want the field on the coil of wire with a plane perpendicular to the plane of screen [into the screen].

To give you a better model of my setup, it involves two magnet,side by side, surrounded by steel, then the coil of wires. below is the front cross section of the diagram.

[PLAIN]http://img218.imageshack.us/img218/2397/diagramg.png [Broken]

AFter going through the page, this is the equation which I see is the best for my setup, I will assume everything is in a block of steel with no air gaps or anything

[PLAIN]http://img3.imageshack.us/img3/5849/equation.png [Broken]

Couple of questions popped up

Because the equation doesn't have anything related to vertical distance, I can maybe use simple trig to cacluate the x component of distance as the magnet moves up [x1 and x2]. Though not accurate, it will be able to provide me with some results

[PLAIN]http://img23.imageshack.us/img23/107/unledvd.png [Broken]

Or did I understand the whole equation wrong? :'(

it doesn't involve any dipole things you mentioned.

>>I THINK THAT WAS IT<< but I'm trying to understand how the equation work. Like I want the field on the coil of wire with a plane perpendicular to the plane of screen [into the screen].

To give you a better model of my setup, it involves two magnet,side by side, surrounded by steel, then the coil of wires. below is the front cross section of the diagram.

[PLAIN]http://img218.imageshack.us/img218/2397/diagramg.png [Broken]

AFter going through the page, this is the equation which I see is the best for my setup, I will assume everything is in a block of steel with no air gaps or anything

[PLAIN]http://img3.imageshack.us/img3/5849/equation.png [Broken]

Couple of questions popped up

- The equation will give me flux density in a rectangular region which is about has a distance of X from the center of the magnet
- I can alter my design to have the coil of wire in a square like region instead of circular cross section has depicted in the diagram
- Assuming I have calculated the flux density on the face of the cross section of the square region which will house the coil of wire, how will I exactly calculate the flux change as the magnet moves up or down?
- More specifically, how will be able to caculate flux change w.r.t to time ot find the voltage induced? If I find an equation for flux density change w.r.t time, I might be able to simple graph it and find the equation of best line of fit using excel. This equation could be derviced w.r.t t and DONE. fLUX change w.r.t time. I hope I am not wrong.

Because the equation doesn't have anything related to vertical distance, I can maybe use simple trig to cacluate the x component of distance as the magnet moves up [x1 and x2]. Though not accurate, it will be able to provide me with some results

[PLAIN]http://img23.imageshack.us/img23/107/unledvd.png [Broken]

Or did I understand the whole equation wrong? :'(

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Nice! Thanks for the link. Maybe I can use it sometime.

Use of their equation require a [tex]B_{r}[/tex]. Do you know this value for your magnet?

I mentioned magnetic dipole moments because I was thinking about calculating the magnetic field using the atomic structure of a magnet. The first three paragraphs on http://www.magneticsolutions.com.au/how-magnets-work.html" [Broken] from their site gives a brief overview about the structure of a magnet.

It would be great to know how they found out those equations. They haven't posted about it.

Use of their equation require a [tex]B_{r}[/tex]. Do you know this value for your magnet?

I mentioned magnetic dipole moments because I was thinking about calculating the magnetic field using the atomic structure of a magnet. The first three paragraphs on http://www.magneticsolutions.com.au/how-magnets-work.html" [Broken] from their site gives a brief overview about the structure of a magnet.

It would be great to know how they found out those equations. They haven't posted about it.

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please read my previous message.. I updated it..took a long time to edit it :p

?

[STRIKE]what exactly is [PLAIN]https://www.physicsforums.com/latex_images/33/3302816-0.png? [Broken] [/STRIKE]**residual magnetic flux density in Gauss**

the type of magnet i'm using is Neodymium Iron Boron. ANd according to this random paper i found using google, its**Neodymium Iron Boron (Br = 1-1.2T).**

http://www.google.com/url?sa=t&sour...sg=AFQjCNEXrdITjlR0RiZ25RdRTmebdEJA_w&cad=rja

?

[STRIKE]what exactly is [PLAIN]https://www.physicsforums.com/latex_images/33/3302816-0.png? [Broken] [/STRIKE]

the type of magnet i'm using is Neodymium Iron Boron. ANd according to this random paper i found using google, its

http://www.google.com/url?sa=t&sour...sg=AFQjCNEXrdITjlR0RiZ25RdRTmebdEJA_w&cad=rja

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Btw, is it possible using FEM software? I have ansys but I don't know how to use it yet. I do have CAD model of whole setup. Maybe if you know, I can forward you the model to carry out the FEM. I don't have time right now to learn whole Ansys.

If I'm able to do what this author as done http://img687.imageshack.us/img687/8389/11yatchevilievahinov.pdf [Broken] it will save me loads of time understand the equations and caclculating the time. But I find it more interested to actually solve all the equation and assume necessary conditions.

If I'm able to do what this author as done http://img687.imageshack.us/img687/8389/11yatchevilievahinov.pdf [Broken] it will save me loads of time understand the equations and caclculating the time. But I find it more interested to actually solve all the equation and assume necessary conditions.

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- #18

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And if I also understand correctly you intend to change the setup of your magnet to the one they have given the equation for.

The equation they have given is valid for a point along the central axis of the magnets. But I GUESS you can approximate that for the whole rectangular area between the magnets IF you have the magnets VERY CLOSE TOGETHER.

Then if you can move the magnet(or move the coil), so the coil passes between the rectangular space between the two magnets, and keep the plane of the coil perpendicular to the central axis of the magnets, the flux through the coil [tex]\phi_{B}[/tex] is [tex]\phi_{B} = B \cdot A[/tex], where [tex]B[/tex] is the flux density and [tex]A[/tex] is the area of the coil that lies in the rectangular space, right?

So [tex]\frac{ d \phi }{d t} = B \frac{d A }{d t}[/tex].

If the magnet is rectangular and the length of the magnet is INSIDE THE RECTANGULAR SPACE is [tex]l[/tex] (the coil is moving relative to the magnet in the direction of [tex]l[/tex]), and the width of the magnet is [tex]w[/tex], then [tex]\frac{ d A}{d t } = w \frac{ d l }{ d t }[/tex].

So [tex]\frac{ d A}{d t }[/tex] will be positive as the coil enters the space between the two magnets and negative as it exits the space between the two magnets (The direction of the voltage will change). The exact equation will depend on how the magnet or the coil moves (will it be falling under gravity or moving at a constant velocity or etc...).

They're very clear that the equation is for the distance along the central axis of the magnet. So going off axis will not work. But if you keep the magnets very close together, there will be an almost constant flux density between them, but there will be almost none outside. So the coil will suddenly enter an area of non-zero constant flux density.

I have no expertise with Finite Element Method or Ansys.

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Thanks I think the problem is solvable,. I want to be sure I'm on the right track

First, the magnet is in a small air pocket, then comes the steel/iron which has the coil in it. I exaggerated the diagram.

Second, it will be only the magnet moving vertically up and down with a defined velocity equation just like in how induction works but instead of coil of wire surround the magnet it will be in a circular rod shaped all tightly winded up together.

[PLAIN]http://img841.imageshack.us/img841/1220/finaldiagram.png [Broken]

The brown is the coil of wire going around the two magnets which will be stationary

The gray region represent the steel or iron, haven't decided which one, probably going to go with iron

the light blue region represent air

So coming back to the equations, lets say the magnet moves up,

[PLAIN]http://img607.imageshack.us/img607/6446/changeinflux2.jpg [Broken]

Lets say the cross section area of wire from the front view is the yellow region, the flux density region created by the magnet is the red region. Initially the coil of wire lies in the region of the flux but when the magnet moves up, the flux region too moves up producing change in flux region in the coil of wire. I kept the flux perpendicular to the motion of the magnet and assumed if the magnet moves up, the flux region also moves up instead of creating a new flux which will be lower in strength which would still exist, I said, it will not exist..

Coming back to equation, the magnet is rectangle, the magnets are close together too.

Again, the coil are OUTSIDE the magnets, not in between or anything, they are bascially OUTSIDE magnet casing - surrouding it and its the magnet which will be moving, not the coils.

I hope I got it right... cuz if I did, I'm of to paper and pencil and solving it. It good I have all the equations now

But Now i have to do,

use the velocity equation and relate it somehow to the changing area. Because the velocity is vertically up and the for example the velocity equation is y=2x. Y=2x represent the length. dy/dt=dl/dt. So the area is simple dydt*w [width of the rectangle which is OUTSIDE covering the cross section of the wire].

The only confusion I'm facing right now is DO I us the radius of coil of wire to find the total voltage induced? The radius was used before find the B on the square region which was R distance way. And I know the induced is flux over change which I found but shouldn't I be using the circumference somewhere to find the TOTAL induced voltage in the coil instead of find it on the cross section? Maybe [PLAIN]https://www.physicsforums.com/latex_images/33/3302875-4.png [Broken] [Broken] * {2piR}? Or it isn't necessary? Like i want total induced voltage.

First, the magnet is in a small air pocket, then comes the steel/iron which has the coil in it. I exaggerated the diagram.

Second, it will be only the magnet moving vertically up and down with a defined velocity equation just like in how induction works but instead of coil of wire surround the magnet it will be in a circular rod shaped all tightly winded up together.

[PLAIN]http://img841.imageshack.us/img841/1220/finaldiagram.png [Broken]

The brown is the coil of wire going around the two magnets which will be stationary

The gray region represent the steel or iron, haven't decided which one, probably going to go with iron

the light blue region represent air

So coming back to the equations, lets say the magnet moves up,

[PLAIN]http://img607.imageshack.us/img607/6446/changeinflux2.jpg [Broken]

Lets say the cross section area of wire from the front view is the yellow region, the flux density region created by the magnet is the red region. Initially the coil of wire lies in the region of the flux but when the magnet moves up, the flux region too moves up producing change in flux region in the coil of wire. I kept the flux perpendicular to the motion of the magnet and assumed if the magnet moves up, the flux region also moves up instead of creating a new flux which will be lower in strength which would still exist, I said, it will not exist..

Coming back to equation, the magnet is rectangle, the magnets are close together too.

- I will calculate the [PLAIN]https://www.physicsforums.com/latex_images/33/3302875-2.pngusing [Broken] the equation from the link by simply plug n chuging the numbers
- Next I will find the flux area [PLAIN]https://www.physicsforums.com/latex_images/33/3302875-3.png [Broken] changing at intervals, time:1,2,3,4 ... the veocity motion is periodic and magnet will come down. I will plot it and find the equation of flux change w.r.t. So the area will change with velocity of the magnet moving up, the faster it moves up, the more flux change there will be in one second, the more current will be induced.
- Now I have B and area change w.r.t, I will be able to find voltage induced [PLAIN]https://www.physicsforums.com/latex_images/33/3302875-4.png [Broken] [Broken]
- i'm going to assume the air pocket to be very samll so the affect will be negilible but practically, the air gap is noticeable and I KNOW it will affect the results.

Again, the coil are OUTSIDE the magnets, not in between or anything, they are bascially OUTSIDE magnet casing - surrouding it and its the magnet which will be moving, not the coils.

I hope I got it right... cuz if I did, I'm of to paper and pencil and solving it. It good I have all the equations now

But Now i have to do,

use the velocity equation and relate it somehow to the changing area. Because the velocity is vertically up and the for example the velocity equation is y=2x. Y=2x represent the length. dy/dt=dl/dt. So the area is simple dydt*w [width of the rectangle which is OUTSIDE covering the cross section of the wire].

The only confusion I'm facing right now is DO I us the radius of coil of wire to find the total voltage induced? The radius was used before find the B on the square region which was R distance way. And I know the induced is flux over change which I found but shouldn't I be using the circumference somewhere to find the TOTAL induced voltage in the coil instead of find it on the cross section? Maybe [PLAIN]https://www.physicsforums.com/latex_images/33/3302875-4.png [Broken] [Broken] * {2piR}? Or it isn't necessary? Like i want total induced voltage.

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- #20

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You can't have the coil outside the magnet for the http://www.magneticsolutions.com.au/magnet-formula.html#drs" (there is enough steel for all of the flux from the outside of the left magnet to be connected to the outside of the right magnet).

So you'll have to use exactly http://www.magneticsolutions.com.au/magnet-formula.html#drs" magnet setup and put your coil between the magnets, or choose another magnet setup. I can't see any way to calculate [tex]B[/tex] that will go through the coil for the magnet setup in the diagram you've drawn.

When I started looking at this, I had no knowledge of things like [tex]B_{r}[/tex]. But since I've read a little now, I think the approximate calculation of flux is possible for a setup where there is a single permanent magnet surrounded by a coil, and the magnet moves up and down, with the knowledge of [tex]B_{r}[/tex], and http://www.magneticsolutions.com.au/magnet-formula.html#sr" equation. Once the top of the magnet drops below the coil, the distance to the coil is [tex]x[/tex], and that equation can be used. Same thing can be done when the bottom of the magnet is above the coil, only the direction of [tex]B[/tex] is reversed. But I don't think this is a good way to maximize flux change, because the change of flux for a change of [tex]x[/tex] seems to be small. (I don't have much time to draw images. I will be glad to explain more elaborately if what I'm writing is not clear.)

And looking at their equations, what they've done with steel is assume that steel just extends the thickness of the magnet. So it might be possible to have more magnets with steel pieces one of top of the other (i.e. Steel pieces making contact with North or South poles of magnets) . But let me look in to that first before answering definitely. I have to find out how much steel will give the effect of extending the thickness. I'm sure just adding an infinite length of steel would not make an infinite length of bar magnet from a small bar magnet. It would require an infinite amount of energy to align the magnetic moments (atoms) inside a steel bar of infinite length along one direction, and a small permanent magnet doesn't have an infinite amount of energy.

Any flux region associated with a magnet will move up as the magnet moves up. Well, for the speeds that are important to a project like this, anyway. The flux regoin will have trouble catching up only when the speed of the magnet approaches the speed of light.

I have trouble understanding your second diagram. Could you mark the North and South poles of the magnet?

BTW, could you mark the North and South poles of your first diagram too? Maybe I might have misinterpreted the whole thing.

So you'll have to use exactly http://www.magneticsolutions.com.au/magnet-formula.html#drs" magnet setup and put your coil between the magnets, or choose another magnet setup. I can't see any way to calculate [tex]B[/tex] that will go through the coil for the magnet setup in the diagram you've drawn.

When I started looking at this, I had no knowledge of things like [tex]B_{r}[/tex]. But since I've read a little now, I think the approximate calculation of flux is possible for a setup where there is a single permanent magnet surrounded by a coil, and the magnet moves up and down, with the knowledge of [tex]B_{r}[/tex], and http://www.magneticsolutions.com.au/magnet-formula.html#sr" equation. Once the top of the magnet drops below the coil, the distance to the coil is [tex]x[/tex], and that equation can be used. Same thing can be done when the bottom of the magnet is above the coil, only the direction of [tex]B[/tex] is reversed. But I don't think this is a good way to maximize flux change, because the change of flux for a change of [tex]x[/tex] seems to be small. (I don't have much time to draw images. I will be glad to explain more elaborately if what I'm writing is not clear.)

And looking at their equations, what they've done with steel is assume that steel just extends the thickness of the magnet. So it might be possible to have more magnets with steel pieces one of top of the other (i.e. Steel pieces making contact with North or South poles of magnets) . But let me look in to that first before answering definitely. I have to find out how much steel will give the effect of extending the thickness. I'm sure just adding an infinite length of steel would not make an infinite length of bar magnet from a small bar magnet. It would require an infinite amount of energy to align the magnetic moments (atoms) inside a steel bar of infinite length along one direction, and a small permanent magnet doesn't have an infinite amount of energy.

Any flux region associated with a magnet will move up as the magnet moves up. Well, for the speeds that are important to a project like this, anyway. The flux regoin will have trouble catching up only when the speed of the magnet approaches the speed of light.

I have trouble understanding your second diagram. Could you mark the North and South poles of the magnet?

BTW, could you mark the North and South poles of your first diagram too? Maybe I might have misinterpreted the whole thing.

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- #21

- 18

- 0

What now left to do is to come up with an equation which would tell me flux on small boxes and add them up -some integral formula because the amount of flux density changes with distance. Also, I have to relate a velocity -harmonic velocity which simple fluctuates- with the change in mangnetic field.

I just to clear one thing up is the equation is asking for the dimension of the magnets right? Not the dimension of outer area? It simply tells me the amount of flux density on a point with respect to the dimension of the magnet? Like what I interpreted before, the area which was outside the diagrams was the area of which I want to calculate the flux density off! I was wrong right? Its simply the side view of magnet or front view depends on your perspective.

speed are around 5m/s or so.

I thinking to stick with signal magnet equation or magnet with steel.

the magnet? top is N and bottom is S :p

- #22

- 327

- 2

Yes, those are the dimensions of the magnet, because they've defined it in a diagram. I don't understand the second part of your question.

May I suggest posting this question in the engineering section. The engineers might have a lot of suggestions because they work practically with this kind of equipment a lot.

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